That is not an accurate definition of racism, and no, none of those observations are inherently racist. From Miriam Webster:
Simply observing cultural differences with respect to the tastes and interests of different groups is not racist. It is just demographics.racism, noun
1: a belief that race is a fundamental determinant of human traits and capacities and that racial differences produce an inherent superiority of a particular race
also : behavior or attitudes that reflect and foster this belief : racial discrimination or prejudice
2 a: the systemic oppression of a racial group to the social, economic, and political advantage of another specifically : WHITE SUPREMACY
see also SYSTEMIC RACISM
b: a political or social system founded on racism and designed to execute its principles
If I observe that the French are not so much into baseball that is an accurate observation and not racist. You will look long and hard to find baseball fields in France. Likewise if I observe that Americans are not so much into cricket that is also an accurate statement. You will not find many oval cricket pitches in the United States. Will you find a few in big cities with lots of Indian/Pakistani immigrants and British expats? Sure. But not many. And you will wait a LONG time to see cricket coverage on ESPN. Because the Average American sports fan is not dying to see cricket results.
I could also observe that American Mennonites are not so much into hip hop or vodka. And that American Mennonites are predominantly White. Again, not racist, simply accurate observations. Can you find Mennonite congregations in the US that are into hip hop and vodka? Perhaps, but they would be the exception. Likewise you'll also not find many (if any) Mennonite congregations in the US that are majority Black.
Even overtly racial observations are not necessarily racist. I work in education and it is a well-known fact that Black and Hispanic students perform more poorly on standardized tests than White and Asian students. Every teacher and school administrator (Black or White) everywhere in the country is acutely aware of this fact. And yes, it is a fact because we do have demographic data on every student who takes the SAT.
The question is WHY that is the case.
If I were to say that Black and Hispanic students perform more poorly on the SAT because they are genetically inferior and prone to laziness then yes, that would be a RACIST explanation.
If I were to say that Black and Hispanic students perform more poorly because on average they live in communities with higher rates of poverty that is an accurate statement and also not racist. SAT scores in every state in the country correlate almost perfectly with with average income of each zip code and school district. And that is true across all racial lines. I can tell you without looking that White students in wealthy cities like Highland Park or Southlake have higher SAT scores on average than White students in less affluent town like Abilene or Wichita Falls.
The first explanation is racist, the second is based on class. Now we can dig deeper and ask why Blacks on average have less wealth and live in less wealthy neighborhoods than Whites. And again, we can come up with racist explanations to explain that demographic fact (Blacks are genetically inferior or more lazy). Or we can come up with non-racist explanations, such as that Blacks have faced a long legacy of racism and discrimination in this country, which is the opposite explanation. And perhaps we can come up with other explanations that have nothing to do with race one way or the other.
