Nowhere does it say we have to own slaves. It simply tells us how to interact if we are slaves. The Scripture was wrote to people under Roman occupation in much of the known world and we cannot go live under Romans nor would we want to. The commands to be obedient to the Government still applies today as well as the objection to ungodly practices.Sudsy wrote: ↑Sat Jul 09, 2022 12:16 pm
But my point is that what Jesus and NT writers preached to be practised in that culture, we do not practise as Christians in our culture. I don't go to somewhere else in this world where I can continue being a Christian with slaves so I can literally follow what is written in the New Testament. Instead we look at what the message is that the NT gives behind the practise and try to apply it as such.
I would tend to agree that it wasn't a once a year practice and that it was to teach us to be servants to each other. What I cannot do is say its not a command as Jesus stated it clearly.Also, I was raised in a church that did once a year foot washing. Nothing wrong with acting out this practise if the idea of being a servant to each other in what might be considered the lowliest of tasks but this task in that time and place was a norm. What was not a norm was that they washed each other's feet and not just be served if you were not a servant/slave. Since this was an ongoing task in that setting, it was not a once a year type of event. I believe Jesus used this practise to teach us to be servants of one another throughout the year.
If we were to go back to the of end slavery, would you also say that about the slaves? Never did Paul or any of Scriptures express this was an education thing and never was there a limit on who could be ordained among the believing men. It doesn't say anything outside of not a young Christian. Education was not the litmus test prior to ordination in fact they speak to few of the educated coming into the kingdom. Paul also connects the limit of a woman preaching or exercising authority back to the garden. Several of the early church leaders were said to have been slaves and this did not limit them. Gentiles would not have had the education in Scripture any more then a woman had. I think your argument is deeply flawed when you consider what the Scripture actually said.What is not said is that they are commandments of the Lord for all believers for all time. There is no doubt in my mind from historical data that women did not have the education or exposure to biblical studies as a man. It would not help further the Kingdom at that time to get women involved in certain ministry whereas today, God is using many women in leading roles especially in the foreign mission settings.
Many well meaning individuals are misled by desire to lessen the statements on women but the Bible clearly states that a woman was not to lead the church or practice authority over a man and this was not educational differences.
While I might disagree with mode of baptism of the Mennonites, I would disagree that Peter disobeyed Jesus. I also would say that the Scripture might imply immersion but doesn't dictate immersion. Didache was compiled over several decades and its impossible to separate what was earliest practice and what was later practice and pursuing that line of thinking leads to Orthodoxy or Catholic dogma.If you sense the guiding of the Spirit to take every NT written command as applicable to all Christians for all time, then follow that leading and be blessed. Regarding water baptism (immersion) not only did the full immersion get changed in the earliest practise but the literal names used was not according to what Jesus literally said. No one, as recorded in the NT, immersed in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Did Peter start a new way to baptise and disregard what Jesus commanded ? If we look at the text literally, he did.
So, in this case, the symbol for baptism (immersion-dying to sin and rising to right living) was of significance. In the Didache we find qualifications outlined for water baptism found nowhere in the NT. So, the NT practise literally has not been followed by many Christians, many Anabaptists too.
Scripture doesn't dictate what is modest or what a covering looked like. My wife choses to wear an opaque cap for this reason. There is very little in the early church writings about what a covering looked like outside of Tertullian advocating for face coverings. There are several differing arguments about what a covering is but even the Jewish women cover. Mind you... they shave their heads and then wear a wig so that seems pretty crazy to me... that wasn't how they did so in the Old Testament though.So you are not in support of cape dresses or headcoverings as was historically worn in the NT ? Well, then it seems you agree with what a covering means and not the literal practise of the early church culture. As long as a woman has something, more than her hair, on her head (including a see through little cap that basically covers very little) she is obeying scripture ? And as long as a woman wears modest clothing, cape dress or otherwise, she is in obedience ? Do I understand your view here ?
You get hung up on this lifting hands thing. Someone disobeying this should not justify disobedience in other area's. a person will be judged without another to use as an excuse.So you lift your hands to pray 'everywhere' (if taken literally), like in a restaurant when you say grace ? And when Paul talks about women not wearing certain things just after men praying with lifted hands (1 Timothy 2) he says all this beginning with it being Paul's desire or what Paul wants. He didn't say God commands these things forever and ever.
Could it be that what 'quenches the Spirit' is when Christians get hung up on these kind of things and we debate them forever while we are not reaching the lost who Jesus came to save, self included ?