I have no clue how that works…nett wrote: ↑Wed Dec 01, 2021 4:55 pmSo a woman is married to whoever takes her virginity? What about rape?mennonitemom1 wrote: ↑Wed Dec 01, 2021 4:18 pmI think in biblical terms if a man “takes” a woman that constitutes marriage… Paul said do not couple yourself to a harlot because what God hath together, let no man separate (or something very close to that)… 1 cor 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.nett wrote: ↑Tue Nov 30, 2021 3:22 pm I know this is a tired old subject that has had plenty of discussion here already. However, I think as our culture becomes more and more demented, we need to continue to understand our beliefs about it.
I bring this up specifically, because I had a very lively discussion with a visitor at our church who feels that strict permanence of marriage is the only option, with no exception clause. Since I have not been able to answer this question myself, I asked him how he defines marriage, and whether a common law marriage would count. He felt common law would not, since there is no "marriage covenant". I asked if a previous state licensed gay marriage should prevent a converted man from marrying a women in the church, and this generated a lot of confusion. He ultimately came to the conclusion that it would, which I believe is consistent, but kind of demonstrates the absurdity of allowing the state / culture to define what marriage is.
I have a number of questions, and I would like to primarily hear from the folks here who are in churches that abide by, and/or personally abide by strict permanence of marriage. I am not interested in discussing conventional evangelical thinking about "grace". I'm very familiar with the view, and the results that it achieves.
Question #1
At what point (if not now) do the plain churches need to re-examine (and question) who they allow to define marriage? Thinking about the what-ifs. What if the state stops endorsing heterosexual marriage at all, or places it in a lower class than things like gay marriage?
#2
If marriage is a covenant before God, how can a gay marriage which is defiance of God's law, or a marriage between two non-believers be considered a marriage at all?
#3
If the culture basically stops having heterosexual marriages, does that mean cohabitation / children in a heterosexual marriage would take over and be deemed a "previous marriage" in our tradition?
#4
How can our traditional view of permanence of marriage adapt in a biblical way to an ever degenerating culture without allowing divorce to creep in?
I really hope I get some discussion on this, because it's something I'm having a hard time with, and it doesn't seem to be something anyone in my circles has any interest in thinking about, which is typical of the conservative people in my area, they like to pretend that cultural problems don't exist until it's too late to do much about them.
I would assume that God would not join them in that case…

