Outsider wrote:You are a very learned man, as are many here- more learned than I am, I believe (also as many heregcdonner wrote:Unfortunately, IMHO, y'all have missed the point of the scripture's identification of anti-christ, mostly because you are lifting it all out of it's first century context.
Gnosticism was rampant in the first century, both in Christian as well as Jewish and pagan theology.
John was warning against the Christian Gnosticism that was then prevalent and striving against the church and continued to do so for several centuries, and continues in one form or another to this day. Their view of "the Christ" was that he/it/she came in spirit form only, which fit into their dualistic world views.
We may and should draw out the principles from John's teachings, but not without understanding it's contexts and applying it the way he and the Holy Spirit intended it to be used.
Too many christians enjoy playing the "pin the horns on the anti-christ" game. It has been done to the hurt of our testimony (pun may be intended John).
The anti-christ is NOT the same as the man of sin/lawlessness that Paul refers to in his letter to the Thessalonians, nor is it the same entity identified by the revelator as the "beast". Each one is viably different in their descriptions, applications and ramifications. They may seem to be similar, but that does not mean they are the same.
One thing we fail to learn from history is that we forget it and are doomed to repeat it, and that we always are so sure of our place in the scheme of the ages that we must be the primary focus, because "we" are living "now".
Y'all need to study to ascertain who the "you, ye, they. them are in contrast to us, we, and I" of scripture. The message is for us, but not written directly to us. Our arrogance leads us astray all too often when reading the bible.
There are time limits and place limits which we ignore to our detriment.
Think about it!). And you are a fearsome debater. But I just can't buy your preterism! There are too many things I can't see as happening in the first century for me to believe that it was all fulfilled in that span of time. Can't see or won't see? There was a song popular many years ago now that said, "There is none so blind as he who will not see."
Why did John bother to couch it in an apocalyptic series of visions and allusions if it was just current events? And if all of it happened in the first century, why did John promise
It was precisely because his vision was relevant to contemporary events that it was couched in "hidden" language. Only the church would know the significance of it's message and couldn't be persecuted further for another charge of blasphemy, either by the Romans or the Jews. If it wasn't contemporary, then how could John say,Rev 22:10 And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand.
11 He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
This would deny the great commission. Has the great commission been suspended for over 2000 years? This is in direct contradistinction to the message that was given to Daniel accompanying his prophetic visions:Dan 12:9 And he said, Go thy way, Daniel: for the words are closed up and sealed till the time of the end.
Revelations 22
18 For I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to these things, [j]God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book; 19 and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God[k] shall take away his part from the [l]Book of Life, from the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
As this was written at the very end of the first century, less than a decade before the second, how would someone who added to his words be the recipient of the plagues he describes in the book?
From my studies, the book of Revelation was written 35 years before the end of the first century, and has in view, not the end of the "world" as some imagine, but rather the end of the Old Covenant. History demonstrates that all the things spoken in the Revelation happened to the nation of Israel, in perfect fulfillment of Jesus' prophecies.
You may choose not to follow the view of preterists, but you can't deny it's historical accuracy when taking the NT in it's context. Those who denied the power of Christ and his prophetic utterances, did, in fact suffer all the consequences of the book of Revelation, with a couple of exceptions that seem to go beyond the scope of the first century. (Rev 20)
If Peter was inspired, then how do you explain away his statement, made circa AD60
1Pe 4:7 But the end of all things is at hand: be ye therefore sober, and watch unto prayer.
Certainly the end of creation was not "at hand", but indeed the end of the Old Covenant (OC) was, just as also the writer of the book of Hebrews pointed out:
Some things to consider, eh?Heb 8:13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.