MattY wrote: ↑Fri May 22, 2026 1:08 am
ken_sylvania wrote: ↑Thu May 21, 2026 9:44 pm
Bootstrap wrote: ↑Thu May 21, 2026 5:46 pm
So you believe that the Scriptures promote and hold up the notion of breaking up marriages with children? Where?
As was mentioned earlier, in Ezra the breaking up of marriages entered into in direct violation of the law of Moses is held forth as a praiseworthy thing. And not only breaking up the marriages, but putting away the children resulting from those marriages. Why wouldn't the principle carry forward to marriages that Jesus says constitute adultery?
Is it actually praiseworthy? Breaking up such marriages was never commanded in Scripture, in fact it arguably goes against the teachings of the Old Testament, not to mention the New Testament as well (even though the marriages themselves were also against the Law). The mass divorces were proposed by a man, not commanded by God, and the text merely records what Ezra said and what they did. Both Ezra and Nehemiah start with hope, good intentions, and obedience, but both have anticlimactic endings deliberately woven into the text. They're not hagiographic tales about heroes making everything right; they're showing that even these godly leaders did not bring the change Israel needed and although Israel was back in the land, their spiritual condition was not very different. Both Ezra and Nehemiah were flawed and did not bring the Kingdom of God, and in that way, the strange, anticlimactic endings point out man's brokenness and the need for a Savior.
There is nothing in the text to indicate that Ezra's response was the wrong response. Their response certainly did not go against the teachings of the New Testament, which did not exist at that time.
MattY wrote: ↑Fri May 22, 2026 1:08 am
Bootstrap wrote: ↑Wed May 20, 2026 3:27 pm
So I think these things should flavor our discernment and our response. If we want to create a set of guidelines for these cases, I also think it's important to take things like these into account:
1. The "except for adultery" clauses in Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 9:19.
2. "Not bound" and "free" in 1 Corinthians 7. If you read the chapter as a whole, people who are "not bound" are free to marry. And that seems to include this part: "But if the unbelieving spouse leaves, let it be so. The brother or the sister is not bound in such circumstances; God has called us to live in peace."
It's simply not accurate to say that 1 Corinthians 7 says that people who are "not bound" are free to marry. Just because a person is "not in bondage" to a particular person doesn't automatically mean they may legitimately be "bound" to another person. Verse 11 makes this clear - a separated wife is instructed to remain unmarried, clearly putting the lie to the idea that she is free to remarry.
But that (the bolded part) is a legitimate interpretation of 1 Corinthians 7 and it seems to be the best interpretation. Verse 11 is addressing a different situation to verse 15 and so its instructions do not apply to the situation in verse 15. In fact the instructions in verse 15 are intended to be a contrast to the instructions in verse 11.
Let's go through it step by step.
1. Verse 11 is addressed to a wife who has left her husband: she must remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. The same applies to husbands.
2. Verses 12-14 explain that the same still applies to a husband or wife living with an unbelieving spouse: If the spouse is willing to stay, the Christian spouse must stay also.
3. Drop down momentarily to verse 15 and note that the situation addressed here is different than the situation addressed in verse 11: the unbeliever, not the Christian spouse, is the one who has left. And Paul gives different instructions here.
4. But go back up to vs. 10-13: Note that Paul uses two different Greek words in these verses,
chōrizō which basically means separate, leave, or depart, and
aphiēmi, which means more literally to divorce or put away. But don't get the wrong idea: Paul means the same thing in both cases, kind of like using the words dissolve or breakup to mean divorce in English. It's just a stylistic difference - don't exaggerate the difference. The fact that "depart" means "divorce" in verse 11 can be seen by the fact that Paul says, Let her remain
unmarried. The divorce has already occurred and she is in a situation where she might remarry, so Paul says, Don't. Either remain that way or be reconciled.
It appears you are using the word "unmarried" to do the work of proving that an actual divorce has taken place. I would say that the use of "reconciled" and "husband" would suggest that Paul is giving these instructions regardless of whether a divorce has taken place.
MattY wrote: ↑Fri May 22, 2026 1:08 am
This can be further confirmed by noting that in verses 10-13, Paul is paralleling his instructions, giving the same instructions to both husbands and wives. In verse 11 Paul is not intending to give the husband different instructions than he gave the wife at the end of vs. 10:
Let not the wife depart from her husband... and let not the husband put away his wife.
He similarly addresses husbands in vs. 12 and wives in vs. 13 in the parallel situation, making sure it's clear that wives ane husbands have the same instructions.
5. Now let's go back to verse 15:
But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart [chōrizō]. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases.
Paul once again uses the same word as he did at the end of vs. 10/beginning of 11. It's not a difference in meaning, but using the same word stylistically emphasizes the contrast Paul is making: This is a different situation. The unbeliever, not the Christian, has departed (divorced). And the Christian is not under bondage in this case.
Once again, "depart" here means divorce, just as in vss. 10-11. So this is not giving a second reason for divorce (abandonment - the first reason would be adultery, per the Exception Clause), as if the spouse can leave without divorcing and then you can go get a divorce. No, this is saying that if your spouse divorces you (you are the innocent party, your spouse left the marriage and sought the divorce), you are no longer bound to them.
If Paul had wanted to say that they should remain unmarried or reconcile in this latter case, he could have. Instead, what he says contrasts to what he said earlier: A brother or sister is not under bondage in such cases. In vs. 11, they are bound (as in verse 39): they must either remain unmarried or reconcile. It would make no sense to say you're not bound but you still must either marry or reconcile, since that is precisely what Paul is saying they are not bound to do.
If Paul had wanted to say that the "innocent" partner is free to marry, he could have. Instead, he simply says that they are not bound to live with a person who does not want to live with them, stating that God has called us to peace. He says nothing about them being free to marry.
Your proposed interpretation of the passage has a number of practical problems, not the least of which is that it proposes that Paul is promoting a teaching that would be in direct opposition to Jesus' teaching about divorce. Even taking into account the so-called Exception Clause, Jesus says a person who marries a divorced person commits adultery. And he says that a person who puts away his wife for any reason other than fornication causes her to commit adultery, which indicates that remarriage by an "innocent" divorced person is adultery.
I think that if there are multiple ways to interpret Paul's teaching here, then we need to interpret it in a way that harmonizes with what Jesus taught.