Hebrew Hyperbole
Posted: Wed Jan 18, 2017 12:32 pm
Transferred from this thread.
I have a copy of a book by F.F. Bruce buried somewhere in my files. I don't remember the title or the scope of the book, but he was speaking about Hebrew and some of its characteristics. In that context he said that Hebrew used strong verbs and nouns rather than descriptive adjectives and adverbs. Here's an illustration from Jesus' teachings.haithabu wrote:I agree with that. I see that also in Jacob's complaint to Laban:Solomon knew that some of the things he said in Ecclesiastes weren’t literally true. The eastern mindset wasn’t concerned about that.-which is not literally true according to the text.....you changed my wages ten times....(Genesis 31:41)
Now the question is to what extent do we apply this to interpreting Jesus' teaching? For example, in his teachings on marriage and divorce does he really mean to say that remarriage is always fully equivalent to adultery or is he making an eastern-style overstatement to emphasize a salient point?
Not wanting to restart that particular discussion, at least not in this thread, but I raise it to question whether we ever consider this in understanding how to apply Jesus' teachings. That is certainly not the traditional Anabaptist approach, which leans toward the literal.
This is strong language and western readers could easily misunderstand it. Maybe because of this, the NT itself offers an interpretation, giving it as Hebrew listeners would have understood it, in a parallel passage...Luk_14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.
Maybe someone has some more examples? Or some advice on knowing how to identify hyperbole in the NT?Mat 10:37-38 He that loveth father or mother more than me is not worthy of me: and he that loveth son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me. (38) And he that taketh not his cross, and followeth after me, is not worthy of me.