Yes but Scripture says there were oral traditions. That means some things were orally taught, some written down. Which is why the reformation era as splintered the church every which way in interpretations.Soloist wrote: ↑Wed Feb 28, 2024 2:44 pm In scripture Paul directly mentions baptism for the dead as a practice and uses it to make a point of the resurrection.Can you point to any verse where infant baptism is referenced so openly? Of course not. So I find more Scriptural support for baptism for dead people then I do for infant baptism.1Co 15:29 Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
None of this means I intend to practice either and I don’t think Paul was intending us to do this practice although he doesn’t condemn it.
Bottom line is rejection of Pauls Scripture that he orally taught some things and also the rejection of practice everywhere Apostles started Churches practicing it and rejection of the Scriptures that EO & Catholics cite as support for it and rejection of early Church writers before 3rd century that endorsed it so "where" did it come from that the Christian churches were doing this if you don't bel Ii Eve them? Why do you think some denominations apart from EO & RC still practice it? I really don't care what you practice my contention is that you cannot say "for sure" and God did not send a prophet to speak about it, and everyone was all over the place in reformation era I didn't see a need to get vehement about contesting baptizing infants and children of Christian parents. The same points keep getting made here.