AnthonyMartin wrote:Here's a take on "made to be sin" that I found meaningful. Seemed to have some applicability to this discussion.
Full disclosure, this is my blood brother.
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I am not convinced. There is considerable support for the underlying word sin in "made him to be sin for us" (1 Corinthians 5:21 KJV) to be translated "a sin offering." This would square with Romans 8:3,
"For what the Law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin. He thus condemned sin in the flesh,"
Clarke's Commentary says of 1 Corinthians 5:21,
Source (scroll down) https://www.biblehub.com/niv/2_corinthians/5-21.htmFor he hath made him to be sin for us - Τον μη γνοντα ἁμαρτιαν, ὑπερ ἡμων ἁμαρτιαν εποιησεν· He made him who knew no sin, (who was innocent), a sin-offering for us. The word ἁμαρτια occurs here twice: in the first place it means sin, i.e. transgression and guilt; and of Christ it is said, He knew no sin, i.e. was innocent; for not to know sin is the same as to be conscious of innocence; so, nil conscire sibi, to be conscious of nothing against one's self, is the same as nulla pallescere culpa, to be unimpeachable.
In the second place, it signifies a sin-offering, or sacrifice for sin, and answers to the חטאה chattaah and חטאת chattath of the Hebrew text; which signifies both sin and sin-offering in a great variety of places in the Pentateuch. The Septuagint translate the Hebrew word by ἁμαρτια in ninety-four places in Exodus, Leviticus, and Numbers, where a sin-offering is meant; and where our version translates the word not sin, but an offering for sin.
